Coding

“What is the proper CPT code for percutaneous capsulotomy and tenotomy of metatarsophalangeal joint?”

“I am a young physician and the practice that I am currently at codes almost all routine foot care patients as the following: 1. Tinea ungium B35.1, 2. Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD) I73.9, 3. Pain in left toe. Documentation is all the same: “All nails are thickened, discolored, and painful with subungual debris” with CPT 11721. Basically, there is no individual nail documentation and all nails are always painful with PVD. This includes younger, disabled patients who present with some thickened nails. I was under the impression that you have to document individual nails and that pain alone is a qualifying diagnosis for nails, if used as the secondary code. My question is: wouldn’t coding only CPT 11721, with pain and PVD to all toes all the time raise red flags?”

“After watching some E/M presentations, it was suggested that hospital consultations should be billed with CPT 99252-CPT 99255. When we billed these codes, our EMR system and our clearing house rejected the codes. They are saying effective 1/1/2010, CMS has announced that they will reject these codes. Are we billing the right codes?”

“How do you code for a fracture of the tibial sesamoid? Is it any different if you considered it to be a symptomatic, bipartite tibial sesamoid? What about an avascular necrosis of the tibial sesamoid?”

“I am not sure when I should and can bill for an E/M when seeing patients for wound care. Is it reasonable to bill an E/M code if the patient returns for follow up for their ulcer and it is 100% healed? Occasionally hyperkeratotic tissue is present and sometimes I debride the callus to confirm the ulcer has healed. I always spend time on these visits educating the patient on ulcers and the diabetic foot. Would it be appropriate to code for an E/M at this visit since the vast majority of the time is spent counseling the patient prior to discharging them from care?”

“What constitutes the difference between CPT 10120 and CPT 10121 – simple subcutaneous versus complicated subcutaneous foreign body removal? Take for example a patient is seen in the clinic with a splinter that I was unable to retrieve simply. Instead, it required local anesthesia and deep probing but no incision or suturing. I removed a 2 centimeter wood splinter. It was subcutaneous, it was “more complicated” than a typical splinter to retrieve (needing local and more than usual probing) yet really wasn’t THAT complicated. How do you define complicated in this case? RVU values for CPT 10121 versus CPT 10120 seem to indicate there are very real differences between the two codes.”

“How do you code for a hospital consultation when the patient is in the postoperative global period from another surgeon? I was called to the local hospital to see a patient that was transferred for medical treatment for an unrelated condition. He had a transmetatarsal amputation (TMA) performed for apparent osteomyelitis at the other hospital by a different podiatric surgeon. I was consulted to evaluate the TMA site and make recommendations for management. How do I code the diagnosis and E/M for this post-operative consultation?”

“I saw an established patient who returned to the office for “At Risk,” Routine Foot Care. The patient also had a new complaint of heel pain. I obtained X-rays of the foot and gave a steroid injection into the heel. Can I bill for the “At Risk,” Routine Foot Care and those additional treatments as well?”

If a patient comes into the office/clinic and is diagnosed for example with a fracture at the base of the 5th metatarsal on the right foot and the physician eventually plans to operate on the fracture, there are a few options to explore and consider.

What are the relevant ICD-10 codes that are accurate to describe conditions like “excessive pronation”, varus/valgus, or pes cavus issues?