by Michael Warshaw, DPM, CPC
- February 03, 2025
- By tahlia@tldsystems.com
- 0 Comments
“I know things have changed a little for removal of retained hardware and I am seeking clarification for a scenario. A patient has previously had an Austin Akin bunionectomy. It healed uneventfully. Years later, she has developed pain at the retained screw in the metatarsal. There is a k-wire noted in the proximal phalanx. X-rays showed complete healing at the osteotomies. The patient would like to have both implants removed despite only one of them hurting today. How would the changes in CPT coding apply to this situation? Thank you for the help.”
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