“My patient suffered blunt trauma to his right hallux and suffered non-displaced fractures of the distal and proximal phalanx. We are going to treat this injury conservatively. Would it be appropriate to bill CPT 28490 two times to represent the treatment of both phalanx?”
“As a general question, I am wondering if a physician documents that the patient has had symptoms for longer than a year and has failed conservative/other treatment, can this problem be considered as “chronic with exacerbation/progression”? I am referring to the verbiage in the CPT book (page 13, under Stable, chronic illness) regarding the expected duration of at least 1 year and am wondering if it is applicable in this scenario.
Also, I know that a diagnosis of osteoarthritis is inherently considered “chronic”, but I am wondering if there are other diagnoses that can be considered ‘chronic’, as well?”
